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Fullantho's avatar

With Mexico, from all sources I have seen, Valley Of Mexico and Southern Mexico received more European migrants than Center West and Northern Mexico. But why are the latter two more European in genetics? First of all, lower prexisiting Ameridian populations. Second of all, cities were population sinks during the pre modern period, so lots of Europeans that ended up in places like Mexico City did not leave that many descendants. Lastly, Center west and Northern Mexico did not have nearby Ameridian peasant population who costanly move to nearby cities and towns.

javiero's avatar

> You might reasonably expect Argentina to have a similar genetic makeup to, say, New Jersey

That's the image many people still have, instead of the more realistic "New Jersey stitched together with Coahuila". Assuming stitching includes intermarriage, of course.

Thanks for the shout-out! And I should have made the point that: "the number of Argentines with at least one post-1895 migrant ancestor is going to be much much higher". I'm pretty sure there's a chart of autosomal ancestry for a sample of Argentine individuals somewhere, and that it illustrates this point perfectly.

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